Arunachal Pradesh Public Service Commission APPSC

The Arunachal Pradesh Public Service Commission was established on 4th April' 1988 under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.One of the main functions of the commission is to conduct examinations and interviews for appointment to various services of the State. For current list of notifications check “notifications”.

Functions of APPSC

Recruitment of the Candidates

I. On the basis of Interview only

II. On the basis of screening test & Interview

III. On the basis of Examination only

IV. On the basis of Examination & Interview only

V. On the basis of Preliminary Examination, Main Examination & Interview

Promotions
Disciplinary Actions
Service Rules
Advice to the Arunachal Pradesh Government

Contact Details:

Arunachal Pradesh Public Service Commission

PSC Building, Vidhan Vihar, Itanagar,

Arunachal Pradesh- 791111

Repo Ronya, Secretary- 2211412

Tacho Taba, Joint Secretary- 2214590

APPSC Port Officer

APPSC - Port Officer,  A.P. Port Service

Applications are invited on-line through the proforma application which is available on the APPSC website for recruitment to the post of PORT OFFICER in A.P. Port Service (GAZETTED).

Important dates:

Online availability of application: 10/01/2012 to 08/02/2012

Last date for payment of fee: 06/02/2012

Date of exam: 26/02/2012

Application Fees: Rs.100/- (Application Processing Fee), Rs.120/- (Examination Fee)

Selection Procedure:

The selection of candidates for appointment to the posts will be made on written examination (conventional type). The final selection of these posts will be based on the written examination.

1. The minimum qualifying marks for selection are OCs 40%, BCs 35% SCs, STs 30% or as per rules. The minimum qualifying marks are relaxed able in the case of SC/ST/BC on the discretion of the Commission.
2. The candidates will be selected and allotted to Service/ Department as per their rank in the merit list and for the vacancies available. N.B.: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks shall not vest any right in a candidate for being considered for selection.
3. The selection will be made on state-wide merit. Reservation to local candidates is not applicable to this recruitment as per departmental special rules.
4. The appearance in all the papers at the Written Examination as per rules is compulsory. Absence in any of the papers will automatically render his candidature as disqualified.
5. Candidates have to produce Original documents and other particulars for verification as and when required and called for. If the particulars furnished in the application do not tally with the Original documents produced by the candidate, the candidature will be rejected. The candidate should carefully fill in all the particulars. For any omission on his part in filling the application leading to rejection of his/her candidature as he/she will be solely and squarely responsible. Commission will not entertain any request in this regard.
6. The appointment of selected candidates will be subject to their being found medically fit in the appropriate medical classification.

Vacancies:         

PC.No	Name of the Post	State/Zonal	No. Of Vacancies	Age as on 01/07/2011 Min. Max.	Pay Scale Rs.
01	Port officer in A.P. Port Service (Gazetted) Direct Recruitment	State Level	OC-1 SC(W)-1	18-44 (For SC(W) Maximum Age is 50 Years	18,025-30,765/-

Education Qualification:

Post Code	Name of the Post	Educational Qualifications
01	Port Officer In A.P. Port Service (Gazetted) Direct Recruitment	Candidates must possess a Foreign going Master’s Certificate granted by the Government of India and must have served as Chief Officer (OR) must possess a Home Trade Master’s Certificate granted by the Government of India and must have served as Chief Officer of Home Trade ship.

How to Apply:

1. Logon to the website (www.apspsc.gov.in) and enter basic personal details like name, father’s name, date of birth, and community.
2. Immediately on entering the above details the applicant will get (downloadable) - challan form to pay the fee at A.P. online centers /State Bank of India.
3. The applicant should pay the prescribed fee in any one of the A.P. Online centers /State bank of India and obtain fee paid challan with journal number in the first instance.
4. On the next working day after payment of fee the applicant should again visit Website and enter the journal number to get and fill the format of application and should submit on-line.
5. Affix your recent colour passport size photograph on a white paper and then sign below the photograph with black pen. Scan the above photo and signature and upload in the appropriate space provided (jpg format) in application form.
6. The applicants have to invariably fill all the relevant columns in the application and should submit on-line.

• Hand written/ typed/ Photostat copies/ outside printed application form will not be accepted
• Only applicants willing to serve anywhere in the Andhra Pradesh should apply.

Contact Information:

For any problems related to online submission and downloading of hall-tickets

Phone: 040-23557455 (call time: 9.30 am to 1.00 pm & 1.30 pm to 5.30 pm)

Email:  appschelpdesk@gmail.com.

Centre for Written Examination:

• The Written Examination will be held in Hyderabad only.
• The Written Examination is likely to be held on 26/02/2012

Syllabus:

• GENERAL STUDIES

1. 1.    Modern History Of India And Indian Culture: Modern Indian History from 19th Century to the present including the Nationalist Movement and Constitutional Development. Indian Culture and Heritage including Architecture, Fine Arts, Dance Forms, Music, Paintings, Folk Arts and Performing Arts. 
2. Indian Polity: General and broad understanding of the structural (i.e. institutions and functional processes) aspects and the functioning of the Indian Political System.
3. Indian Economy And Geography Of India: Structure of National and State Economy – Planning and Economic development in India including A.P. State – Economic Reforms in India – Physical, Economic and Social Geography of India.
4. 4.    Current Events Of State, National And International Importance
5. Science And Technology: Role and impact of Science and Technology in the development of India.
6. Disaster Management (Source : CBSE Publications)

i)     Concepts in disaster management and vulnerability profile of India / State of A.P.
ii)    Earth quakes / Cyclones / Tsunami / Floods / Drought – causes and effects.
iii)  Man made disasters - Prevention strategies.
iv)  Mitigation strategies / Mitigation measures.

Note: There will be six parts in the question paper. Candidates are required to answer six questions in all, attempting one question from each part. Each question carries 25 marks. (25 x 6 = 150)

• ESSAY (English)

Candidates will be required to write TWO ESSAYS on specific topics on the relevant qualifying subject and/or Professional experience, the choice of subjects will be given. They will be expected to keep closely to the subject of essay, arrange their ideas in an orderly fashion and write concisely.

For further instructions and relaxation in upper age limit, log on to:  http://website.apspsc.gov.in/Documents/NOTIFICATIONS/127.pdf

APPSC Lecturer Librarian Jobs

Applications are invited on-line through the proforma application which is available on the APPSC website (www.apspsc.gov.in) for recruitment to the various posts meant for SC,

ST Candidates.

Important dates:

Online availability of application: 15/11/2011 to 14/12/2011

Last date for payment of fee: 12/12/2011

Date of exam: to be announced

Selection Procedure:

• For Librarians in A.P. Collegiate Education: The selection is made based on written (objective type) examination
• For post code. No. 02 to 14:-the selection is to be made in two successive stages:-

a)      Written examination (objective type)

b)      Oral test in the shape of interview only for those qualified as per rules.

The final selection of these posts will be based on the written and oral marks put together.

1. Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked high will be called for interview in 1:2 ratio. The minimum qualifying marks for interview / selection are SC s, ST s 30% or as per rules. The minimum qualifying marks are relaxable in the case of SC/ST on the discretion of the commission.
2. The candidates will be selected and allotted to service/ department as per their rank in the merit list and as per zonal preference.
3. The appearance in all the papers at the written examination and also for interview in

Case called upon is compulsory.

1. Candidates have to produce original documents for verification. Failure to do so may result in rejection or disqualification.
2. The appointment of selected candidates will be subject to their being found medically fit in the appropriate medical classification.

 Vaccancies:       

Candidates can apply ON-LINE. The details are as follows:

PC. No	Name of the Post	Zone	Community		Age as on 01/07/2008		Scale of Pay Rs.(Pre-Revised)
01	Librarians in A.P. Collegiate Education	I	SC(W)-1L		18-44		8000-13500
Lecturers in Govt. Degree Colleges in Collegiate Educational Services(State Wide Post)
02	English	I IV		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1		18-44		10285-24200
03	Urdu	IV V		SC(W)-1 SC(W)-1
04	Commerce	II IV CC		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1
05	Economics	I VI		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1
06	History	V VI		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1
07	Political Science	IV VI		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1
08	Mathematics	II		ST(W)-1
09	Physics	IV IV V VI CC		ST(W)-1 SC(W)-1 ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1 SC(W)-1
10	Botany	I II IV VI		ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1 ST(W)-1
11	Zoology	I		ST(W)-1
12	Statistics	IV		ST(W)-1
13	Geology	IV		ST(W)-1
14	Home Science	II		SC(W)-1

Education Qualification:

PC. No.	Educational Qualification
01	i) Master’s Degree in Library Science with 55% and above marks or an equivalent Grade of B in the 7 point scale with letter grades O, A, B, C, D, E & F or equivalent degree, obtained from the Universities recognized in India. ii) Should have passed National Eligibility Test (NET) N.B.: 1. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, at the Master’s Level for the SC/ST category. 2. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, to the Ph.D., Degree holder who has passed their Master’s Degree prior to 19.09.1991. 3. PhD. candidates shall be exempted from the requirements of the minimum eligibility condition of NET / SLET for recruitments and appointment of Librarians
02 to 14	i) Good academic record with a minimum of 55% of the marks or an equivalent Grade of B in the 7 point scale with letter grades O, A, B, C, D, E & F at the Masters Degree level, in the relevant subject, obtained from the Universities recognized in India. ii) Should have passed National Eligibility Test (NET) N.B.: 1. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, from (55% to 50% of marks) at the Master’s Level for the SC/ST category. 2. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, (from 55% to 50% of marks) to the Ph.D., Degree holder who have passed their Master’s Degree prior to 19.09.1991. 3. PhD. candidates shall be exempted from the requirements of the minimum eligibility condition of NET / SLET for recruitments and appointment of Librarians
PC. No.	Educational Qualification
01	i) Master’s Degree in Library Science with 55% and above marks or an equivalent Grade of B in the 7 point scale with letter grades O, A, B, C, D, E & F or equivalent degree, obtained from the Universities recognized in India. ii) Should have passed National Eligibility Test (NET) N.B.: 1. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, at the Master’s Level for the SC/ST category. 2. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, to the Ph.D., Degree holder who has passed their Master’s Degree prior to 19.09.1991. 3. PhD. candidates shall be exempted from the requirements of the minimum eligibility condition of NET / SLET for recruitments and appointment of Librarians
02 to 14	i) Good academic record with a minimum of 55% of the marks or an equivalent Grade of B in the 7 point scale with letter grades O, A, B, C, D, E & F at the Masters Degree level, in the relevant subject, obtained from the Universities recognized in India. ii) Should have passed National Eligibility Test (NET) N.B.: 1. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, from (55% to 50% of marks) at the Master’s Level for the SC/ST category. 2. A relaxation of 5% marks may be provided, (from 55% to 50% of marks) to the Ph.D., Degree holder who have passed their Master’s Degree prior to 19.09.1991. 3. PhD. candidates shall be exempted from the requirements of the minimum eligibility condition of NET / SLET for recruitments and appointment of Librarians

How to Apply:

Fee:

Application processing fee - Rs. 25/- (rupees twenty five Only) - compulsory for all applicants

Application Process:

Step I       : Logon to the website (www.apspsc.gov.in) and enter basic personal details like name, father’s name, date of birth, and community.

Step II     : Download a challan form to pay the fee at ap online centers /state bank of india.

Step III   : The applicant should pay the prescribed fee in any one of the a.p. Online centers /state bank of India and obtain fee paid challan with journal number.

Step IV  : On the next working day after payment of fee, revisit website and enter the journal number to get the format of application.

Step V    The applicant has to fill all the columns in the application and should submit on-line. Affix your recent colour passport size photograph on a white paper and then sign below the photograph with black pen. Scan the above photo and signature and upload in the appropriate space provided (jpg format) in application form.

Step VI  : If any candidate fails to enter “community” for any reason, they will be treated as an oc without giving any notice.

Contact Information:

For any problems related to online submission and downloading of hall-tickets:

Contact 040-23557455 (call time: 9.30 a.m to 1.00 p.m & 1.30 p.m to 5.30 p.m)

or e-mail To appschelpdesk@gmail.com.

Centre For Written Examination:

• The Written Examination will be held in Hyderabad only.
• For further instructions, log on to: http://website.apspsc.gov.in/Documents/NOTIFICATIONS/123.pdf

APPSC Group I 2012 Syllabus

GENERAL STUDIES AND MENTAL ABILITY

(SCREENING TEST – OBJECTIVE TYPE)

1. General Science – Contemporary developments in Science and Technology and their implications including matters of every day observation and experience, as may be expected of a well-educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific discipline.
2. Current events of national and international importance.
3. History of India – emphasis will be on broad general understanding of the subject in its social, economic, cultural and political aspects with a focus on AP Indian National Movement.
4. World Geography and Geography of India with a focus on AP.
5. Indian polity and Economy – including the country’s political system- rural development –Planning and economic reforms in India.
6. Mental ability – reasoning and inferences.
7. Disaster Management (Source: CBSE Publications)
   1. Concepts in disaster management and vulnerability profile of India / State of A.P.
   2. Earth quakes / Cyclones / Tsunami / Floods / Drought – causes and effects.
   3. Man-made disasters - Prevention strategies.
   4. Mitigation strategies / Mitigation measures

                                                  

MAIN EXAMINATION (CONVENTIONAL TYPE)

GENERAL ENGLISH (X CLASS STANDARD, QUALIFYING FOR INTERVIEW)

1. Comprehension
2. Précis-writing
3. Re-arrangement of sentences
4. Correction of sentences
5. Synonyms
6. Antonyms
7. Filling in the blanks
8. Correction of spellings
9. Vocabulary and usage
10. Idioms and phrases
11. Verb tenses
12. Prepositions
13. Active voice and Passive voice
14. Parts of speech

                                                                                  

PAPER-I (General Essay)

Candidate need to write three Essays, one from each section compulsorily. Each section contains three topics. Each Essay carries 50 marks

SECTION-I:          Crisis management, Social problems, Analysis and solutions.

SECTION-II:         Current events of national and international importance.

SECTION –III:     Current events relating to State of Andhra Pradesh.

PAPER-II

SECTION-I

History and cultural heritage of India with emphasis on 20th century history of India

1. Indus Civilization – Vedic Civilization – Distinction between Indus Civilisation and Vedic Civilisation – Evolution of Varna, Jathi/caste system – Religious condition – Emergence of Religious Movements (Jainism, Buddhism and other sects) – Rise of Magadha. Imperialism – Rise of Mahayana and Development of Art (Gandhara, Mathura and other Schools).
2. Advent of Islam and its impact – Influence of Islam on Indian Culture – Religious Movements – Nature and significance of Bhakti Movements – Growth of vernacular languages, literature, fine arts, architecture, monuments, Indo-Persian art and architecture - Vijayanagara empire and their contribution to art, literature and culture –socio-economic conditions, administration, fall of Vijayanagar empire – the Great Mughals and their contribution to Indian Fine Art, Architecture and Fine Arts – Rise of Shivaji.
3. Stages of colonialism – changes in administrative structure and politics – factors leading for the British supremacy, assistance of Indian Powers and the causes of failures – Civil rebellions – Revolt of 1857 and its impact – Rise of nationalist consciousness and factors for the growth of Indian Nationalism and Freedom Struggle : Three Phases :1885-1905, 1905-1920, 1920-47 and significance of Gandhian Era.
4. Rise and growth of Socio-Religious-cultural – anti-caste, Dalit and non-Brahmin, Justice/self-respect movements in modern India – Social reform organisations and role of intellectuals – Raja Ram Mohan Roy - Dayanand Saraswati - Jyotiba Phule - Narayana Guru - Mahatma Gandhi - Ambedkar and others.
5. Nationalist Literature – growth of peasant and labour movements – role of leftist parties in anti-feudal and anti-colonial struggles-rise and growth of Women’s movements – origin and growth of communalism – workers and peasant movements –freedom and partition of India; important historical events after independence.

SECTION-II

Social and cultural history of Andhra Pradesh

1. The Satavahanas and their contribution – social structure – religious conditions – growth of literature and painting – Ikshvakus and their cultural contribution – Growth of Buddhism in Andhra Pradesh – The Eastern Chalukyas of Vengi and their importance – socio-cultural contribution – growth of Telugu language & Literature – education and learning – Religious Sects – growth of art and architecture.
2. Socio- Cultural and Religious conditions in Andhra Desha between 1000 AD – 1565 AD Growth of Telugu Language and Literature – Nannaya- Molla etc., fine arts and architecture – Monuments – Significance – Contribution of Qutubshahis to Telugu language and Literature – Art- Architecture- Monuments.
3. Modern Andhra - Socio-cultural awakening in Andhra – Brahma Samaj, Arya Samaj, Theosophical society – Adi-Andhra, Movements and role of Veereshalingam and others – Non-Brahmin, Adi- Andhra /Dalit and Justice/self – respect movements – Gurram Joshuva – Boyi Bheemanna – Sri Sri and others – Growth of Nationalist Movement in Andhra and the Andhra Leaders during the Freedom Struggle – Role of socialists – communists – anti-zamindari-kisan movements.
4. Asafjahi Dynasty – socio-cultural awakening in Telangana -Adi-Hindu Movement – Nizam Rashtra Janasangham – Andhra Mahasabha – Andhra Saaraswata Parishat – The role of Hyderabad State Congress and Vandemataram Movement.
5. Telangana People’s Armed Struggle – Ittehadul-Muslimeen – Razakars-anti-Nizam Struggles and end of Nizam’s Rule and integration of Hyderabad State in Indian Union – Formation of Andhra Pradesh.

 SECTION-III

General overview of the Indian constitution

1. Nature of the Constitution – constitutional developments – salient features – Preamble – Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy and their relationship - Fundamental Duties, Distinctive features of Indian Federation.
2. Distribution of Legislative Powers between the Union and the State; Administrative and Financial relations between the Union and the States – Powers and the functions of Constitutional Bodies.
3. Unicameral and Bicameral Legislatures – Functions and crises of accountability, decline of legislature - Delegated Legislation – Legislative and Judicial control over the delegated legislation – Judicial review of administrative action.
4. Amendment of the Constitution – Basic Structure Theory – Emergency Provisions and De-centralisation – Community development experiment – 3 tier model of Panchayat Raj – 73rd and 74th amendments and their implementation.
5. Welfare Mechanism in India: Provisions for scheduled castes, Tribes and Minorities; Reservations for SC, ST and Backward classes; Prevention of SC and ST Atrocities Act; National and State SC and ST Commission; Women’s Commission; National and State Minorities Commission and Human Rights Commission.

PAPER-III

SECTION-I

Planning in India & Indian economy

1. National and per capita income and human development - Sectoral changes in the Indian Economy (GDP and work force).
2. Indian Planning – Objectives, priorities, specific aims of the recent 5 year plan-- experience and problems. Changes in the role of public-private Sectors and their shares in the total plan outlay - before and after economic reforms
3. Poverty and unemployment problems-- magnitude and measures initiated to ameliorate them.
4. Monetary policy – Structure of Indian Banking and non-banking financial institutions and reforms in them since the 1990s—regulation of credit by RBI.
5. Pattern of revenue, expenditure and public debt and effects on the economy.

SECTION-II

Land reforms & social changes in A.P. after independence

1. Historical background of land reforms and the change in laws from time to time –Intermediaries abolition, tenancy reforms, ceilings on holdings and land issues in A.P.
2. Structure of the Andhra Pradesh economy - its sectoral and regional distribution and the extent of poverty. Agricultural inputs and technology.
3. Demographic features and social backwardness, literacy and occupation structure; changes in the sectoral distribution of income and employment. Socio-political and economic empowerment of women.
4. State finances and budgetary policy – tax structure, sharing central taxes, expenditure pattern in revenue and capital account as well as plan and non-plan accounts. Public debt – composition - internal and external debt including World Bank loans.
5. Five year plans of AP – Outlays, financing public sector plan and resource allocation pattern in the recent 5 year plan.

SECTION –III

Andhra Pradesh’s economy, present status, its strengths and weaknesses

1. Growth and structure of industries in AP; Factories, small and tiny sectors, their comparison, growth, weaknesses and problems.
2. Structure of agricultural outputs. Administrated prices including support and procurement prices - Public Distribution System in Andhra Pradesh.
3. Regional disparities in income, industrial output, rainfall, irrigation, health and education in AP.
4. Institutional and non-institutional sources of rural credit in AP - structure and growth - cooperatives and their share in total credit - adequacy and problems.
5. Service Sector of AP – Importance, composition and growth with special reference to transport and communication, tourism and information technology.

PAPER-IV

SECTION-I

Role and impact of science and technology in the development of India:

Unit 1.          National policy of science and technology and changes in the policy from time to time, Technology Missions.

Unit 2.          Space programme in India and its applications with special reference to industrial, agricultural and other rural developmental activities, INSAT and IRS systems.

Unit 3.          Role of Information Technology in Rural India, basics of computers, computers in communication and broadcasting, software development in economic growth. Broad IT applications.

Unit 4.          Energy Resources: Energy demands, renewable energy resources, nuclear energy, the development and its utilisation in the country.

Unit 5.          Current Science & Technology Developments in India, Climate change, Disaster Management (Floods, Cyclones and Tsunami); Crop science in India, Fertilisers, Control of pests and diseases – scenario in India; Drinking water and supply, urbanisation and industrial development.

SECTION-II

General awareness with the modern trends in life sciences

Unit 1.          Progress of Agricultural Science and its impacts - Introduction to Biotechnology: History of fermentation development, industrially important fermentation products (antibiotics, organic acids, alcohols, vitamins, amino acids (only one in each category is to be studied)) Production of low volume, high value fermentation products (insulin, growth hormones, recombinant vaccines, interferons)

Unit 2.          Plants and human affairs, characteristics of plants, usefulness for mankind, origin of agriculture, useful and harmful plants. Introduction to animals, Domestic and wild animals, usefulness of animals for mankind, Exploitation of animals by man for food and medical advancements.

Unit 3.          Introduction to and applications of Genetic Engineering & Stem Cell Research: Basic concepts (the basic process of genetic engineering) – Biotechnology in agriculture (Biofertilisers, Biopesticides, Biofuels, Genetically modified crops, Tissue culture) animal husbandry (transgenic animals- applications) and environment (Biotechnology in Environmental cleanup processes).

Unit 4.          Microbial infections; Common present day infections and preventive measures. Introduction to bacterial, viral, protozoal and fungal infections. Basic knowledge of infections caused by different groups of micro organisms – diarrhoea, dysentery, cholera, tuberculosis, malaria, viral infections like HIV, encephalitis, chikungunya, bird flu – preventive measures during out breaks.

Unit 5.          Vaccines: Introduction to immunity, Fundamental concepts in vaccination and traditional methods of vaccine production (production of DPT and Rabies vaccine), Production of Modern Vaccines (production of Hepatitis vaccine), applications of immunological methods in diagnosis.

SECTION-III

Development & environment problems:

Unit 1.          Environmental Segments, Promoting Environmental Protection, The Environment (Protection) Act, Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act, Water pollution Cess Act, Forest conservation Act, Environmentalism

Unit 2.          Natural Resources: Forest Resources – Types of Forests, Uses of Forests. Water Resources- Types of Dams, Drought Occurrences and Floods, Land Resources: Soils and Cropping patterns, Mineral resources.

Unit 3.          Eco-Systems and Bio-diversity: Terminology of Ecology, Basic Concepts of Ecology, concept of an Ecosystem, Food Chains in Eco systems, Types of Eco systems. Biodiversity and its conservation: Types of biodiversity, Hotspots of Biodiversity, threats to diversity.

Unit 4.          Environment Pollution and Solid Waste Management: Air Pollution, water pollution, Soil Pollution, Noise pollution. Solid Waste Management: Types of Solid waste, Factors affecting the solid waste generation, Impact of solid wastes, Recycling and reuse.

Unit 5.          Role of Information Technology in Environment and Human Health. Global Environmental Issues like Climate Change, Acid Rain, Global warming, Wasteland Reclamation, Watershed management, watershed approach for sustainable development.

PAPER-V

Data interpretation and problem solving

1. Data appreciation and interpretation using ratios, percentages and averages.
2. Drawing conclusions from the data present in tabular, graphical and diagrammatical forms and to point out deficiencies, limitations or inconsistencies therein.
3. Problem solving using the following:

a)      Sequences and Series: Analogies of numbers and alphabets, completion of blank spaces in a,b,c,d, odd thing out, missing number in a sequence or series.

b)      Coding and decoding problems: A given word or group of letters in English are to be coded or decoded based on the given code(s).

c)       Date, time and arrangement problems: Calendar and clock problems, blood relationship and seating arrangements.

Passage Analysis: A duly structured situation will be presented to the candidates and they will be asked to analyse and suggest their own solution to the problem arising out of situation. Alternatively, they may be called upon to prove the understanding of the situation by answering certain searching questions based on the situation

APPSC Group I 2012 Notification

The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission: GROUP-I SERVICES -2012

The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) has issued notification for recruitment of 263 vacancies in various departments. An online application has to be filled in order to apply for the examination. Complete information regarding the Eligibility, Vacancy & Selection procedure is available on this site along with the Scheme of the exam.

Important Dates:

• The Screening Test is likely to be held on 27/05/2012
• The Main Examination is likely to be held from 03/10/2012
• Last date for payment of fees: 06/01/2012
• Availability of online forms: 09/12/2011 to 08/01/2012

The application fee costs Rs 100/- and the Examination Fee costs Rs.120/-

Selection Procedure:

The selection to these posts will be based on the Scheme and Syllabus.

1. The selection of Candidates for appointment to the posts will be made in two successive stages: (1) Written Examination and (2) Oral Test in the shape of an interview.
2. The applicants will be subjected to a Screening Test (Objective Type). The selected candidates may appear for the Main (Written) Examination (Conventional Type).
3. The selection to the posts will be based on merit after the Written Examination and Oral marks taken together, duly taking into account the post preferences and other eligibility criteria. In case of Posts/ Services having Multi-Zones/ Zones, Selection will be considered as per preferences exercised

 Scheme of exam for Group Service I

Subject	Duration (Hours)	Maximum Marks
1	2	3
Screening Test (Objective Type)  General Studies & Mental Ability -150 Questions.	2:30	150
Written Examination(Conventional Type)  A. Compulsory Subjects: General English	3	150
Paper-I.          General Essay	3	150
Paper-II. History & Cultural heritage of India with emphasis on 20th century history of India. Social History of Andhra Pradesh i.e., the history of various social and cultural movements in Andhra Pradesh. General overview of the Indian Government.	3	150
Paper-III; Planning in India & Indian Economy Land Reforms and social changes in Andhra Pradesh after independence Economy of  Andhra Pradesh, present status - its strength and weaknesses	3	150
Paper-IV: The role and impact of Science & Technology in the development of India with emphasis of the applied aspects General awareness with the modern trends in life sciences Development and environmental problems	3	150
Paper-V: Data appreciation and interpretation - The candidates will be asked to draw their own conclusion from the data presented in the tabular form; graphical or otherwise Problem Solving – duly structured situation will be presented to the candidates and they will be asked to suggest their own solutions to the problem arising out of situation. Alternatively, they may be called upon to prove the understanding of  the situation by answering certain searching questions based on the situation	3	150
TOTAL		750
B. Oral Test (interview)		75
Grand Total		825

Other Important Points: 

Screening Test	To short list candidates for the written exam, there will be a screen test comprising of General Studies and Mental Ability. (Objective type)
Written Test	The short listed candidates will then be selected for a written examination consisting for 6 papers (conventional type).
Hall Tickets	For admission to the Written Examination will be available on the APPSC website.
Medium of language	Apart from the general English paper, exams can be written in Telugu, or Urdu, as preferred by the candidate.
Interview	After Written Examination, eligible candidates will be called for an Interview.

Vacancy Table

Post Code	Name of the Post	No. Of Vacancies	Age as on 01/07/2011 Min. Max.	Pay-Scale Rs
01	Deputy Collectors in A.P. Civil Service (Executive Branch)	07	18-34	20,680 – 46,960
02	Commercial Tax Officers in A.P. Commercial Taxes Service.	01	18-34	20,680 – 46,960
03	Deputy Superintendant of Police (Civil) Cat-2 in A.P. Police Service	05	21-28	20,680 – 46,960
04	Deputy Superintendant of Jails (MEN) in A.P. Jail Service	04	18-28	20,680 – 46,960
05	Divisional Fire Officers in Fire & Emergency Services	10	21- 26	19,050 – 45,850
06	District Registrar in A.P. Registration and stamps service	05	18 - 34	19,050 – 45,850
07	District  Tribal  Welfare  Officer  in  A.P. Tribal Welfare Service	04	18 - 34	18,030 – 43,630
08	District Employment Officer in Employment Service	23	18 - 34	18,030 – 43,630
09	Asst. Treasury Officer/Asst.   Accounts Officer in A.P. Treasury  &  Accounts service	10	18 - 34	16,150 – 42,590
10	Deputy Registrar in A.P.  Cooperative Service	15	18 - 34	18,030 – 43,630
11	District Panchayat Raj Officers   in Panchayat Raj Service.	11	18 - 34	19,050 – 45,850
12	Regional Transport Officers   in  A.P. Transport Service	06	18 - 34	19,050 – 45,850
13	District Social Welfare Officer in  A.P. Social Welfare Service.	05	18 - 34	18,030 – 43,630
14	District  B.C.  Welfare   Officer  in  B.C. Welfare Service	04	18 - 34	18,030 – 43,630
15	Municipal Commissioner Grade-II in A.P. Municipal Administration Service	03	18 - 34	16,150 – 42,590
16	Mandal Parishad Development Officer in A.P Panchayat    Raj   and   Rural Development Service	80	18 - 34	16,150 – 42,590
17	Lay Secretary / Administrative Officer in Medical and Health	02	18 - 34	16,150 – 42,590
18	Assistant    Prohibition     &    Excise Superintendent    in  A.P.  Prohibition   & Excise Service	04	18 - 26	16,150 – 42,590
19	Assistant Audit Officer in A.P. Local Fund Audit Service.	64	18 - 34	16,150 – 42,590
	Total	263

Eligibility:

Age Requirement:

The candidates should possess the minimum and maximum age as prescribed for each post in the vacancy table as on the 01/07/2011.

For relaxation in upper age, please click on the following link; http://website.apspsc.gov.in/Documents/NOTIFICATIONS/123.pdf

Educational Qualification:

Applicant must possess the qualifications from a recognized University as detailed below or equivalent thereto, subject to various specifications in the relevant service rules and as indented by the department as on the date of notification.

Post Code	EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS
01 to 04, 06 to 08, 10 to 12 & 14 to 19	A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University
5	A Bachelor’s Degree in B.E. (Fire) If BE (Fire) candidates are not available Candidates with the degree in any discipline will be considered.
13	A Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University Preference shall be given to persons possessing a degree in “Sociology” or “Social Work”.
9	A Degree in Commerce OR Economics OR Mathematics of a University recognized by the U.G.C. with at least Second class in the subject OR CA of the UK or India or an Incorporated Accountant (London)

Physical Requirement:

For post code no. 03 to 05	Height - not be less than 167.6 cms. Chest - not less than 86.3 cms. on full inspiration and chest expansion of not less than 5 cms.
For ST	Height - not less than 164 cms. in height Chest - not less than 83.8 cms. on full inspiration and chest expansion of not less than 5 cms.
For post code No 3 (women only)	Height - not less than 152.5 cms. Weight - not less than 45.5 Kgs in weight
For post code No. 18	Height - not be less than 165 cms. Chest - not less than 81 cms. on full inspiration and chest expansion of not less than 5 cms.
For post code no. 03 & 05 Vision	The Candidate should satisfy by a Medical Board as to his Physique, Fitness and Capacity for active outdoor work and is certified by the Ophthalmic Surgeon that his vision comes up to the requirements specified below without the use of contact glasses.

The examination for determining the acuteness of vision includes two tests:

• for distant vision -  Snellon’s test types (without glasses at a distance of 6.10 metres)
• near vision - without glasses, at any distance selected by the candidate

The standards of the minimum acuteness of vision for examination of a candidate are as follows:

STANDARD I
	Right Eye	Left Eye
Distant Vision	V–6/6	V–6/6
Near Vision	Reads 0.6	Reads 0.6
STANDARD II
	Better Eye	Worse Eye
Distant Vision	V–6/6	V- without glasses – Not below 6/6; and after correction with glasses not below 6/24
Near Vision	Reads 0.6	Reads 1
STANDARD III
	Better Eye	Worse Eye
Distant Vision- Not	V without glasses – below 6/24 and after correction with glasses not below 6/6	V- without glasses – Not below 6/24, and after correction with glasses not below 6/12
Near Vision –	Reads 0.8	Reads 1

Reservation: Please refer to the official notification for details

How to Apply:

a) Fee: Each applicant must pay Rs. 100/- (Rupees One Hundred Only) towards Application Processing Fee and Examination Fee RS.120/-

b) Mode of payment of fee:

Step I	The Candidate has to logon to the WEBSITE (www.apspsc.gov.in) and enter his/her basic personal details like Name, Father’s Name, Date of Birth, and Community.
Step II	Immediately on entering the above details the Applicant will get a Challan (has to be downloaded) Form to pay the Fee at AP Online centres /State Bank of India.
Step III	The Applicant should pay the prescribed Fee in any one of the A.P. Online centres / State Bank of India and obtain Fee paid challan with Journal Number in the first instance
Step IV	On the next working day after payment of Fee the Applicant should again visit the WEBSITE and enter the Journal Number to get the format of Application. Even after making payment of fee, if a candidate fails to submit the bio-data particulars, the application will be rejected without giving any notice.
Step V	If any candidate fails to enter “Community” for any reason, they will be treated as an OC without giving any notice.
Step VI	Affix your recent Colour Passport Size Photograph on a White Paper and then sign below the photograph with Black Pen. Scan the above Photo and Signature and Upload in the appropriate space provided (JPG Format) in Application Form.
Step VII	The applicants have to invariably fill all the relevant columns in the Application and should submit ON-LINE.

 c) Exemptions:

The following categories of candidates are exempted from payment of fee:

1. SC, ST, BC, PH & Ex-Service Men.
2. Families having Household Supply White Card issued by Civil Supplies Department, A.P. Government. (Residents of Andhra Pradesh)
3. Unemployed youth in the age group of 18 to 34 years as per on 18/10/1996 should submit declaration at an appropriate time to the Commission.
4. Applicants belonging to the categories mentioned above (except Physically Handicapped Persons & Ex-Service Men) hailing from other States are not entitled for exemption from payment of fee and not entitled for claiming any kind of reservation.

Centres for Written Examination

Screening Test will be held in all District Centres. However, the Commission reserves the right either to increase or decrease the number of Centres.

Sl.No	Name of the Examination Centre
1	Srikakulam
2	Visakhapatnam
3	Vizianagaram
4	Kakinada
5	Eluru
6	Vijayawada
7	Guntur
8	Ongole
9	Nellore
10	Tirupathi
11	Kadapa
12	Anantapur
13	Kurnool
14	Adilabad
15	Karimnagar
16	Warangal
17	Khammam
18	Hyderabad
19	Nizamabad
20	Mahaboobnagar
21	Sangareddy
22	Nalgonda

The Main (Conventional Type) Examination will be held at the following Five Centres only.

Hyderabad, Visakhapatnam, Vijayawada , Tirupati, Warangal.

APPSC Examination Plan

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) Plan of Examination


APPSC Exam Pattern

Most examinations will be a two step process - a written examination (objective type/ or conventional type/ or both) followed by an Interview.
The specific details of each examination will be different and will be outlined in the respective notifications.
The Commission will fix the qualifying marks for written exam and short list candidates for Interview.
The candidates called for the Interview will be in the Ratio of 1:2 (the number of candidates called for the interview will be double the vacancy).
The interview marks will not be more than 12.5% of the total written test marks. The figure obtained will be rounded off to the nearest higher multiple of 5.
The final selection to the posts will be based on the total marks obtained by the candidates at the written examination and oral test (interview) taken together.
The candidates belonging to SCs/STs/BCs/PHs may be called for interview by relaxing the minimum qualifying marks at the discretion of the Commission, in case there is shortage of candidates.
There will be no waiting list. If candidates are not available, such vacancies will be carried forward to the next recruitment.



APPSC Examination Centers

Vishakhapatnam, Vijayawada, Warangal, Tirupati and Hyderabad
In some cases the exam centers might change, such changed will be listed in the respective Exam Notifications.




APPSC Application Fees

For competitive examination comprising a written test and an interview:
State Services - Rs.120/- each
Subordinate Service - Rs.80/- each
For competitive examination comprising only interview:
State Services - Rs.80/- each
Subordinate Service - Rs.50/- each
For competitive examination comprising only a written test:
Subordinate Service - Rs.40/- each




APPSC Fee Exemption: The following categories of candidates of Andhra Pradesh are exempted from payment of fees:

SC, ST, PH, Ex-Servicemen and BCs (both employed and un-employed)
Families having house-hold supply (white Card)
Un-employed youth in the age group of 18 to 35




APPSC Travelling Concession (for interview)

Candidates who satisfy the following criteria are eligible for concession:
Age group of 18-35 (There will be no age limit criteria for SC/ST and PH candidates)
Not employed
The concession will allow free travel by A.P.S.R.T.C. bus services




APPSC Minimum qualifying marks

The standard for each examination and the maximum marks will be fixed by the Commission. The minimum qualifying marks will be as follows:
Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes and Physically Handicapped Persons: 30%
Candidates belonging to Backward Classes: 35%
Other Candidates: 40%




APPSC Memorandum of Marks

Candidates who want to obtain a Memorandum of marks should submit a requisition application. The application should have:
A Xerox copy of the hall-ticket
A crossed Indian Postal Order worth Rs.25/- drawn in favour of the Secretary, A.P.P.S.C.
Requests from candidates, not qualified for interview, will be entertained within two months from the date of publication of the results of the written examination.
Requests from candidates, qualified for interview, will be furnished only after the publication of the final selection lists.




APPSC Recounting of Marks

Request for recounting marks for Objective Type - Preliminary Examination will not be entertained.
Request for recounting of marks in the Main Examination is allowed on payment of Rs.50/- for each paper.
Requests for recounting of marks from a candidate not called for interview should be made within one month from the date of receipt of the memo of marks.
With a request for recounting, a Xerox copy of the memo of marks issued by the Commission should be enclosed with the application.

APPSC List of Services

List of Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) Services

The APPSC conducts annual examinations for direct recruitment in following services.

Non-technical Services


GROUP I APPSC Services

Deputy Collector
Deputy Superintendent of Police Category- II.
Commercial Tax Officer
Regional Transport Officer
Deputy Registrar of Co-operative Societies
District Panchayat Officer
District Registrar
Divisional Fire Officer
Deputy Superintendent of Jails
Assistant Commissioner of Labour
Assistant Excise Superintendent
Municipal Commissioner Grade-II
District Social Welfare Officer
District Backward Classes Welfare Officer including Assistant Director
District Tribal Welfare Officer
District Employment Officer
Lay Secretary & Treasurer Grade-II
Assistant Treasury Officer/Assistant Accounts Officer.
Assistant Audit Officer
Mandal Parishad Development Officer




GROUP II APPSC Services

Executive Posts

Municipal Commissioner Grade-III
Assistant Commercial Tax Officer
Mandal Revenue Officer
Sub-Registrar Grade-II
Junior Employment Officer
Co-operative Sub-Registrar
Assistant Labour Officer
Extension Officer
Excise Sub-Inspector
Executive Officer Grade-II

Non-Executive Posts

Senior Accountant
Auditor in A.P. Pay & Accounts
Senior Accountant
Senior Auditor
Assistant Section Officer in Secretariat Sub-Service
Assistant Section Officer in A.P. Legislature
Assistant Section Officer (Fin. & Plg. Fin. Dept.)
Assistant Section Officer (Law Dept.)
Assistant Auditor
Typist-cum-Assistant in A.P. Secretariat Service
Typist-cum-Assistant in A.P. Legislature Sub-Service
Typist-cum-Assistant (Fin. & Plg. Fin. Dept.)
Typist-cum-Assistant (Law Dept.)
Assistant-cum-Typist (Heads of Dept.) in A.P. Ministerial Service.
Junior Assistant (Heads of Departments) in A.P.Ministerial Sevice
Junior Accountant (Directorate)
Junior Accountant (Directorate) in A.P. Govt. Life Insurance Sub-Service




GROUP III APPSC Services

Junior Inspector of Co-operative Societies
Village Development Officer




GROUP IV APPSC Services

Junior Stenos
Typists and Junior Assistants in Judicial Ministerial Services and Junior Stenos
Typists in the Offices of the Heads of the Departments

APPSC Technical Services

Assistant Engineer
Assistant Motor Vehicle Inspector
Assistant Director of Legal Metrology
Industrial Promotion Officer
Assistant Conservator of Forests

Eligibility for APPSC

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) Eligibility

Age Limit

The maximum age limit is 28 years for Non-Gazetted posts and 26 years for Gazetted posts.
A 6 years age relaxation is also provided by the government from time to time.
The upper age limit will be relaxed in the following cases on production of relevant documents.

SC, ST, BC - 5 years
Physically Handicapped - 10 years
Retrenched temporary employees in the State Census Department (with a minimum service of 6 months) - 3 years
State Government Employees - Up to 5 years
Ex-Service Men - 3 years

N.C.C. - 3 years

Other Restrictions/Exceptions:

Employees of State Government undertakings are not eligible for any age relaxation.
The above age limits cannot exceed a maximum of 40 years for BCs and 45 years for ST & SC.
Widows, divorced women, judicially separated from their husbands who are not remarried, the maximum age limit cannot exceed (for certain categories of posts) 40 years for SC & ST and 35 years for OBC.

Representation of Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward communities and Women

Reservation Schedule

Schedule Castes (A, B, C, D) – 15%
Schedule Tribes – 6%
Backward Classes (A, B, C, D) – 25%
Physically Handicapped (Blind, Deaf & Dumb and OPH) – 3%(1+1+1)
Ex-Service Men 9APMS only) – 1%
Women – 33.33%

Reservation for Local and Non-Local candidates

The state of Andhra Pradesh is organised into SIX zones for the purpose of recruitment.
80% of the seats (varies in respect of certain categories) is reserved for the local candidates of that particular zone/district.
Qualifying as a Local candidate:

The candidate must have studied in an educational institution(s) for atleast four consecutive academic years in a total period of seven years of study prior to and including the year in which he/she appeared for S.S.C. or its equivalent examination. (and/or)
The candidate must have resided in that area which is claimed as his/her local area during the above said period.
The candidate who studied in the schools should produce study certificates from the respective schools.
The candidates who studied privately should submit the residence certificate issued by the MRO.

Details of Zones: Each of the following Zones comprises of the following districts.

Zone I: Srikakulam, Vizianagaram and
Zone II: East Godavari, West Godavari and
Zone III: , Prakasam and
Zone IV: Chittoor, Cuddapah, Ananthapur and
Zone V: Adilabad, Karimnagar, and Khammam
Zone VI: , Rangareddy, Nizamabad, Mahabubnagar, Medak and Nalgonda
Zone VII: All areas come under and Secunderabad

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission APPSC

The Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (APPSC) was formed in 1956, which coincided with the formation of the State of Andhra Pradesh on November 1, 1956.

Earlier it was known as the Andhra Service Commission (formed in 1953, based on the regulations of Madras Public Service Commission). Later in 1956, APPSC was formed by merging the Andhra and Hyderabad Public Service Commission. At present, the six member APPSC is headed by the Chairman, Dr. Y. Venkatrami Reddy.

One of the main functions of the commission is to conduct examinations and interviews for appointment to various services of the State.

For current list of notifications check “notifications”.



Functions of APPSC

Recruitment of the Candidates

I. On the basis of Interview only

II. On the basis of screening test & Interview

III. On the basis of Examination only

IV. On the basis of Examination & Interview only

V. On the basis of Preliminary Examination, Main Examination & Interview

Promotions
Disciplinary Actions
Service Rules
Advice to the Andhra Pradesh Government
Conduct entrance examination for admission of boys to the Rashtriya Indian Military College, Dehradun in February and August
Conduct Half yearly examinations for the All India Services Officers in September and March
Overseeing temporary appointments in Government Departments


Contact Details:

Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission,

Prathibha Bhavan, M.J.Road,

Opp: Gagan Vihar, Nampally,Hyderabad 500103

Ph: 24603593, 24603594, 24603595, 24603596

Fax: +914024601664

email: appschelpdesk@gmail.com

Indian Economy Question and Answers for APPSC Preparation

1. Deficit financing increases—

(A) Rate of money inflation

(B) Rate of money deflation

(C) Rate of devaluation

(D) All of the above

Ans : (A)

2. Which is not a monetary measure to control inflation ?

(A) Soft loan policy

(B) Hard credit policy

(C) Tight the regulation of money issue

(D) To reduce the quantity of money

Ans : (A)

3. Which is the monetary measure to control inflation ?

(A) Increase in taxation

(B) Decrease in taxation

(C) Soft credit policy

(D) Hard credit policy

Ans : (D)

4. Selling of securities in the open market by the central bank creates—

(A) Inflation

(B) Deflation

(C) Both of above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

5. To control inflation the central bank should do—

(A) To sell government securities and to decrease bank rate

(B) To sell government securities and to increase bank rate

(C) To purchase government securities and to increase bank rate

(D) To purchase government securities and to decrease bank rate

Ans : (B)

6. To buy a book, from the market by giving money is called—

(A) Direct Exchange

(B) Indirect Exchange

(C) Direct and Indirect exchange

(D) This is not any type of exchange

Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following is not a direct tax ?

(A) Income tax

(B) Property tax

(C) Sales tax

(D) House tax

Ans : (C)

8. Ultimate burden of tax is known as—

(A) Impact

(B) Incidence

(C) Shifting of tax

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

9. When elasticity of demand and elasticity of supply are equal, the burden of tax ?

(A) Lies more on buyer

(B) Lies more on seller

(C) Lies equally on buyer and seller

(D) All of the above are false

Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following economists suggested tax on expenditure ?

(A) Dalton

(B) Musgrave

(C) Kaldor

(D) Van Philips

Ans : (A)

11. If interest payment is deducted from the fiscal deficit, then the balance is—

(A) Primary deficit

(B) Budgetary deficit

(C) Revenue deficit

(D) Monetary deficit

Ans : (A)

12. Which is the characteristic of a tax ?

(A) Tax is a payment for government service

(B) Tax is a compulsory payment

(C) Tax is voluntary

(D) To get benefit for a tax is compulsory

Ans : (B)

13. Which government income is included in revenue budget ?

(A) Tax-revenue

(B) Non-tax-revenue

(C) Both of above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

14. Which is included in Capital budget ?

(A) Income received from public borrowings

(B) Income received from tax-sources

(C) Income received from non-tax sources

(D) All of the above

Ans : (A)

15. Which is not included in the principles of public expenditure as developed by Findley Shirras ?

(A) Principle of Economy

(B) Principle of Sanction

(C) Principle of Elasticity

(D) Principle of Surplus

Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is the largest significant factor of revenue expenditure of Central Government ?

(A) Defence Expenditure

(B) Subsidy

(C) Interest Payment

(D) Salary

Ans : (C)

17. In comparison to revenue deficit; the size of fiscal deficit is always—

(A) Higher

(B) Smaller

(C) Similar

(D) Uncertain

Ans : (A)

18. What is CENVAT ?

(A) Direct Tax

(B) Indirect Tax

(C) Development Planning

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

19. Where is Indian Diamond Institute (IDI) established ?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Surat

(D) Jaipur

Ans : (C)

20. What is the nature of income tax in India ?

(A) Proportional

(B) Progressive

(C) Regressive

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

21. Which factor is not related to economic development ?

(A) Continuous process

(B) Increase in real national income

(C) Long run and continuous increase

(D) Compulsory change in economic welfare

Ans : (D)

22. The index of measuring economic development is—

(A) Increase in productive assets

(B) National income

(C) Per-capita income

(D) Any of the above

Ans : (D)

23. Process of economic development means—

(A) Economic change

(B) Social change

(C) Ethical, institutional and cultural change

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

24. At 2004-05 prices, the per-capita national income in India during 2009-10 was—

(A) Rs. 21005

(B) Rs. 33588

(C) Rs. 25241

(D) Rs. 20241

Ans : (B)

25. What is the main characteristic of a capitalist or free market economy ?

(A) Individuals are the owners of factors of production

(B) Profit is the main motive of carrying out various activities

(C) Consumer freedom

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

26. According to population census 2001, the state of largest density of population is—

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Bihar

Ans : (C)

27. According to population census 2001, which union territory has the largest percentage of literacy ?

(A) Delhi

(B) Chandigarh

(C) Puducherry

(D) Lakshdweep

Ans : (D)

28. According to population census 2001, which of the following states is below the national average of literacy ?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Gujarat

(C) Orissa

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (C)

29. As per population census 2001, what is the percentage of urban population in total population of India ?

(A) 25•8%

(B) 26•78%

(C) 27•78%

(D) 28•78%

Ans : (C)

30. What was infant mortality rate in India in 2008 ?

(A) 70 per thousand

(B) 65 per thousand

(C) 60 per thousand

(D) 53 per thousand

Ans : (D)

31. As per population census 2001 in which state literacy rate is lowest ?

(A) Bihar

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Orissa

(D) Sikkim

Ans : (A)

32. What has been the annual growth rate of population during 1991-2001 ?

(A) 2•20 %

(B) 2•14%

(C) 1•95%

(D) 1•00%

Ans : (C)

33. In the history of population growth of India, which year is called “the year of great divide” ?

(A) 1951

(B) 1947

(C) 1935

(D) 1921

Ans : (D)

34. What was the density of population per square km in India in 2001 ?

(A) 325 persons

(B) 333 persons

(C) 327 persons

(D) 345 persons

Ans : (A)

35. The factor that determines the change in population of a place is—

(A) Birth rate

(B) Death rate

(C) Migration

(D) All of these

Ans : (D)

36. In whose production U.P. occupies the first place in India ?

(A) Food grains production

(B) Milk production

(C) Production of sugarcane and sugar

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

37. The Headquarter of RBI is in—

(A) Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Kanpur

(D) Nasik

Ans : (B)

38. Which state produces maximum soyabean ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Bihar

(D) Rajasthan

Ans : (A)

39. Which state produces maximum pulses in the country ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Orissa

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (A)

40. Kasturba Gandhi Education Scheme is related to—

(A) Girl Education

(B) Adult Education

(C) Child Labour Education

(D) Tribal Women (above 18 years)

Ans : (A)

41. Which state stands first in the length of roads in the country ?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

Ans : (A)

42. National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) was established in—

(A) 1950

(B) 1951

(C) 1952

(D) 1947

Ans : (A)

43. What is ‘green gold’ ?

(A) Tea

(B) Coffee

(C) Gold

(D) Rice

Ans : (A)

44. Which one is the leading state in the production of groundnut in the country ?

(A) Haryana

(B) Gujarat

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Ans : (B)

45. Which state in India produces maximum mica ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Bihar

(C) Orissa

(D) Jammu and Kashmir

Ans : (B)

46. What is a foot loose industry ?

(A) Any industry which can locate virtually anywhere

(B) Foot loose industry has no strong national orientation in its location requirements

(C) Both of above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

47. “Mahila Samridhi Yojana” was launched on—

(A) October 2, 1992

(B) October 2, 1993

(C) October 2, 1995

(D) January 1, 1996

Ans : (B)

48. Which of the following is not a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) ?

(A) India

(B) Pakistan

(C) Bhutan

(D) None of these

Ans : (D)

49. Nowadays, the thurst areas of human development are—

(A) Health

(B) Gender Equity

(C) Gender Empowerment

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

50. According to area, which state is the largest ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (B)

51. Demand curve of a firm under perfect competition is—

(A) Perfectly Inelastic

(B) Perfectly Elastic

(C) More Elastic

(D) Less Elastic

Ans : (B)

52. Which of the following equation is correct for perfect competition ?

(A) AR = MR = Price

(B) AR MR

(C) AR MR

(D) Price MR

Ans : (A)

53. Which equation is correct under normal profit ?

(A) AR = AC

(B) AR AC

(C) AR AC

(D) AR = AC = 0

Ans : (A)

54. The object of every producing firm is—

(A) To maximise production

(B) To minimise cost

(C) To maximise profit

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

55. Who determines price under perfect competition ?

(A) Representative firm

(B) Industry

(C) Normal firm

(D) Government

Ans : (B)

56. Marshall's representative firm is a long-run average firm while optimum firm is a—

(A) Maximum cost firm

(B) Minimum cost firm

(C) Marginal cost firm

(D) Average cost firm

Ans : (B)

57. In perfect competition average revenue curve is—

(A) Parallel to x-axis

(B) Parallel to y-axis

(C) Slopes down from left to right

(D) Slopes upward from left to right

Ans : (A)

58. In the long-run, perfect competitive firm gets—

(A) Only normal profit

(B) Abnormal profit

(C) Loss

(D) Any of the above

Ans : (A)

59. What minimum price is acceptable by a firm in the short-period ?

(A) Equal to AC

(B) Equal to AVC

(C) Equal to AFC

(D) Equal to TC

Ans : (B)

60. Selling cost is a must in—

(A) Pure monopoly

(B) Perfect competition

(C) Imperfect competition

(D) All of the above

Ans : (C)

61. Which category of land is rent less land ?

(A) First category of land

(B) Second category of land

(C) Third category of land

(D) Marginal land

Ans : (D)

62. Opportunity cast of a factor is known as—

(A) Transfer earning

(B) Money cost

(C) Present earning

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

63. Quasi Rent is—

(A) Equal to firm's total profit

(B) More than firm's total profit

(C) Less than firm's total profit

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following can not be accepted factor of production ?

(A) Land

(B) Labour

(C) Light of sun

(D) Capital

Ans : (C)

65. Land is the only factor of production whose supply is ?

(A) More Elastic

(B) Perfectly Elastic

(C) Perfectly Inelastic

(D) Unitary Elastic

Ans : (C)

66. Rent will be produced at that time when ?

(A) Entire land is fertile

(B) Elasticity of supply of land is perfectly elastic

(C) Land is mobile

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

67. The Example of derived demand is—

(A) Demand for labour

(B) Demand for tea

(C) Demand for consumable commodity

(D) Income demand

Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is an active factor of production ?

(A) Land

(B) Labour

(C) Capital

(D) Organisation

Ans : (B)

69. Who developed the innovation theory of profit ?

(A) Shumpeter

(B) Haley

(C) Prof. Knight

(D) Karl Marx

Ans : (A)

70. When the rate of money inflation increase then the prices of commodities ?

(A) Increase

(B) Decrease

(C) Remain constant

(D) Do not change

Ans : (A)

71. In common meaning, inflation is a condition in which—

(A) Price of commodity increases

(B) Value of money decreases

(C) Price of commodity and value of money both increase

(D) Price of commodity increases and value of money decreases

Ans : (D)

72. According to Keynes, real inflation takes place—

(A) Before the level of full employment

(B) On the level of full employment

(C) After the level of full employment

(D) All above are true

Ans : (C)

73. Which is the main reason of demand pull inflation ?

(A) Increase in money supply

(B) Increase in commercial expenditure

(C) Increase in foreign demand for goods

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

74. The reason for cost push inflation is—

(A) Increase in money wages

(B) Increase in rate of profit

(C) Both of above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

75. What is necessary to control cost push inflation ?

(A) To impose control on wages of labour

(B) To remove market imperfections

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

76. When was Consumer Protection Act enacted ?

(A) 1980

(B) 1985

(C) 1986

(D) 1991

Ans : (C)

77. When was Planning Commission formed ?

(A) March 15, 1950

(B) March 15, 1951

(C) August 15, 1947

(D) January 26, 1950

Ans : (A)

78. Planning Commission is—

(A) A statutory body

(B) A consultative body

(C) Both of above

(D) None of these

Ans : (B)

79. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission ?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Finance Minister

(D) Home Minister

Ans : (B)

80. Who is the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission ?

(A) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

(B) C. Rangrajan

(C) K. C. Pant

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

81. Who was the first Chairman of Planning Commission ?

(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(B) Raja Gopala Chari

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

82. Which of the following is the function of Planning Commission ?

(A) To estimate various resources of the country

(B) To prepare plan for the balanced and effective use of resources

(C) To review plan

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

83. When was National Development Council formed ?

(A) 15th March, 1950

(B) 6th August, 1951

(C) 6th August, 1952

(D) 26th January, 1950

Ans : (C)

84. Who becomes the Chairman of National Development Council ?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Finance Minister

(D) Minister of Planning

Ans : (B)

85. Final shape is given to plan by—

(A) Planning Commission

(B) Finance Minister

(C) National Development Council

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

86. When was first five year plan introduced ?

(A) 1st April, 1950

(B) 1st April, 1951

(C) 1st April, 1952

(D) 31st March, 1950

Ans : (B)

87. When was 10th five year plan introduced ?

(A) 1st April, 2002

(B) 1st April, 2003

(C) 1st April, 2004

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

88. Eleventh Five Year Plan Size (Centre Plus States) as percentage of GDP is—

(A) 9•46%

(B) 13•54%

(C) 15•25%

(D) 14•76%

Ans : (B)

89. What is the period of 11th five year plan ?

(A) 2006-2011

(B) 2007-2012

(C) 2008-2013

(D) 2009-2014

Ans : (B)

90. What is the revised target fixed for annual rate of growth of GDP during 11th five year plan ?

(A) 9%

(B) 8•1%

(C) 10%

(D) 10•5%

Ans : (B)

91. For which year the latest census is being conducted in India ?

(A) 2001

(B) 2010

(C) 2012

(D) 2011

Ans : (D)

92. How many censuses (including the 2011 census) have been carried out since independence ?

(A) 05

(B) 06

(C) 07

(D) 08

Ans : (C)

93. At what interval of years population census is conducted in India ?

(A) 05 years

(B) 06 years

(C) 10 years

(D) 15 years

Ans : (C)

94. When was first human development report of India issued ?

(A) March 2000

(B) April 2002

(C) June 2002

(D) April 2001

Ans : (B)

95. In which religion largest population growth was noticed during 1991-2001 ?

(A) Hindu

(B) Muslim

(C) Christian

(D) Sikhs

Ans : (B)

96. According to population census 2001, population of India as on March 1, 2001 was—

(A) 102•87 crore

(B) 100•20 crore

(C) 99 crore

(D) 98 crore

Ans : (A)

97. In which of the following states the percentage of scheduled caste population is maximum as per final figures of population census 2001 ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) Kerala

(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)

98. In which state the literacy rate of women is highest ?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Mizoram

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

99. According to population census 2001, which of the following states shows largest growth of population during 1991-2001 ?

(A) M.P.

(B) Manipur

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Nagaland

Ans : (D)

100. According to population census 2001, what is the number of women per 1000 men in India ?

(A) 939

(B) 959

(C) 933

(D) 927

Ans : (C)

101. “An Enquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations” is the book of economist—

(A) Adam Smith

(B) Marshall

(C) Robbins

(D) None of above

Ans : (A)

102. “Economics is the Science of Wealth” who gave this definition ?

(A) J. K. Mehta

(B) Marshall

(C) Adam Smith

(D) Robbins

Ans : (C)

103. “Economics is what economists do.” It has been supported by—

(A) Richard Jones

(B) Comte

(C) Gunnar Myrdal

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

104. “Human Welfare is the subject of Economics.” This statement is associated with the name of which of the economists ?

(A) Marshall

(B) Pigou

(C) Penson

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

105. Who has given scarcity definition of economics ?

(A) Adam Smith

(B) Marshall

(C) Robbins

(D) Robertson

Ans : (C)

106. “Economics is a science” the basis of this statement is—

(A) Relation between cause and effect

(B) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws

(C) Experiments

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

107. Characteristics of economic laws are—

(A) Mere statements of economic tendencies

(B) Less certain

(C) Hypothetical

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

108. Which theory is generally included under micro economics ?

(A) Price Theory

(B) Income Theory

(C) Employment Theory

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

109. Whose opinions have revolutionised the scope of macro economics ?

(A) Adam Smith

(B) J.B. Say

(C) J.M. Keynes

(D) All of the above

Ans : (C)

110. Which of the following is an economic activity ?

(A) Teaching of a teacher in the school

(B) To teach son at home

(C) To serve her child by mother

(D) To play football by a student

Ans : (A)

111. Passive factor of production is—

(A) Only land

(B) Only capital

(C) Both land and capital

(D) Neither land nor capital

Ans : (C)

112. Under law of demand—

(A) Price of commodity is an independent variable

(B) Quantity demanded is a dependent variable

(C) Reciprocal relationship is found between price and quantity demanded

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

113. For inferior commodities, income effect is—

(A) Zero

(B) Negative

(C) Infinite

(D) Positive

Ans : (B)

114. When total utility becomes maximum, then marginal utility will be—

(A) Minimum

(B) Average

(C) Zero

(D) Negative

Ans : (C)

115. Utility means—

(A) Power to satisfy a want

(B) Usefulness

(C) Willingness of a person

(D) Harmfulness

Ans : (A)

116. Marginal utility is equal to average utility at that time when average utility is—

(A) Increasing

(B) Maximum

(C) Falling

(D) Minimum

Ans : (B)

117. At point of satiety, marginal utility is—

(A) Zero

(B) Positive

(C) Maximum

(D) Negative

Ans : (A)

118. Which of the following is the second law of Gossen ?

(A) Law of equi-marginal utility

(B) Law of equi-product

(C) Theory of indifference curve

(D) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Ans : (A)

119. Total utility of a commodity is measured by which price of that commodity ?

(A) Value in use

(B) Value in exchange

(C) Both of above

(D) None of above

Ans : (A)

120. According to Marshall, the basis of consumer surplus is—

(A) Law of diminishing marginal utility

(B) Law of equi-marginal utility

(C) Law of proportions

(D) All of the above

Ans : (A)

121. Which commodity can be called as Giffen commodity ?

(A) Inferior commodity

(B) Superior commodity

(C) Any of above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

122. The price of a commodity is determined where—

(A) Demand supply

(B) Demand supply

(C) Demand = supply

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

123. In perfect competition, the demand for a commodity is—

(A) Elastic

(B) Perfectly elastic

(C) Inelastic

(D) Perfectly inelastic

Ans : (B)

124. Which condition is not found in perfect competition ?

(A) Many buyers and sellers

(B) Perfect knowledge about market conditions

(C) Product differentiation

(D) Perfect factor-mobility

Ans : (C)

125. In which market, a firm cannot determine price ?

(A) Perfect competition

(B) Monopoly

(C) Monopolistic competition

(D) Oligopoly

Ans : (A)

126. Which is not the characteristic of socialist or planned economy ?

(A) Government is the owner of resources

(B) Production decisions are determined by the government

(C) Profit motive

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

127. The main feature of mixed economy is—

(A) Combination of free market economy and centrally planned economy

(B) Production is carried out by private individuals and government

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

128. What per cent of GDP at 2004-05 prices was contributed by agriculture and related sectors in 2009-10 ?

(A) 14•6%

(B) 17•6%

(C) 19•0%

(D) 19•8%

Ans : (A)

129. According to World Development Report 2010, Low income economies are those whose per-capita gross national income is—

(A) $ 975 or less than this

(B) Less than $ 11905

(C) Less than $ 4526

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

130. Which of the following country's economy is known as high income economy ?

(A) America

(B) U.K.

(C) Singapore

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

131. How much percentage of working population in India depends on agriculture as per economic survey 2009-10 ?

(A) 52%

(B) 70%

(C) 73%

(D) 75%

Ans : (A)

132. Which policy of economic system has been adopted by India for its economic development ?

(A) Capitalist Economy

(B) Mixed Economy

(C) Socialist Economy

(D) Centralised Planned Economy

Ans : (B)

133. A positive aspect of economic development after independence is—

(A) Creation of a large industrial base

(B) Proportion of population living below poverty line has declined

(C) Self sufficient in the production of food grains

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

134. The negative aspect of economic development after independence is—

(A) Problems of poverty and unemployment have not been eliminated

(B) Industrialisation did not take place as expected

(C) Many public sector enterprises started making losses

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

135. Reasons for the privatisation and liberalisation of public sector after 1991 are—

(A) Corruption

(B) Lack of efficiency in work

(C) Ineffective management

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

136. The main strategy adopted in the new economic policy of 1991 is—

(A) Liberalisation

(B) Privatisation

(C) Globalisation

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

137. How many industries have been reserved for government sector at present ?

(A) 03

(B) 04

(C) 05

(D) 06

Ans : (A)

138. How many industries are kept for compulsory licensing at present ?

(A) 03

(B) 06

(C) 05

(D) 07

Ans : (C)

139. Agriculture sector registered 1•6% growth in 2008-09 and what is estimated for 2009-10 ?

(A) 6%

(B) 4•3%

(C) 0•2%

(D) 0•9%

Ans : (C)

140. When was World Trade Organisation set up by the member countries of the united Nations to promote trade among countries ?

(A) 1994

(B) 1995

(C) 1999

(D) 2005

Ans : (B)

141. Where is the Headquarter of WTO located ?

(A) Newyork

(B) Washington

(C) Peris

(D) Geneva

Ans : (D)

142. The main objective of WTO is—

(A) Import and export restrictions to be abolished

(B) Instead of bilateral agreements, WTO expects the countries to follow multilateral agreements

(C) To regulate international trade of both goods and services

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

143. The largest source of National Income in India is—

(A) Agriculture Sector

(B) Industry Sector

(C) Service Sector

(D) Trade Sector

Ans : (C)

144. In which state the percentage of people living below poverty line is largest ?

(A) Orissa

(B) Bihar

(C) M.P.

(D) U.P.

Ans : (A)

145. Which of the following programmes is not for rural poverty eradication ?

(A) SGSY

(B) SJSRY

(C) PMGY

(D) All above programmes are for rural poverty eradication

Ans : (B)

146. The cause of rise in prices of goods, in the market is—

(A) Rise in money supply

(B) Increase in cost of production

(C) Increase in stocks of goods and blackmarketing

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

147. Changes in the prices of goods in India is measured by which of the following index numbers ?

(A) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)

(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)

(C) Both of above

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

148. Which year has been currently used as the base year to estimate national income in India by CSO ?

(A) 2004-05

(B) 1993-94

(C) 2001-02

(D) 1999-2000

Ans : (A)

149. Which of the following remedies are adopted to control price rise in the economy ?

(A) Monetary measures

(B) Fiscal measures

(C) Administered price mechanism

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

150. The term “Evergreen Revolution” has been used for increasing agricultural production in India by—

(A) Norman Barlogue

(B) Raj Krishna

(C) M. S. Swaminathan

(D) R. K. V. Rao

Ans : (C)